Assume a cylinder / ball of moment of inertia $I = \beta m r^2$ rolls without slipping on an incline with an angle $\theta$. A classic problem is to show that the coefficient of static friction must then satisfy $\mu_s \ge \left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right)^{-1}\tan\theta$. For example, for a uniform ball $\beta = \frac{2}{5}$ and so $\mu_s \ge \frac{2}{7}\tan\theta$.
The usual derivation proceeds as follows:
- Considering the force of friction acting along an incline $F_f$, and the component of gravity acting along an incline $mg\sin\theta$, the linear acceleration along the incline is $a_{CM} = g\sin\theta -\frac{F_f}{m}$. The angular acceleration $\alpha = \frac{F_f r}{\beta mr^2}$. For rolling without slipping to occur, $a_{CM} = \alpha r$, which translates to $$ F_f = \left(1 +\frac{1}{\beta}\right)^{-1}mg\sin\theta $$
We see a difference compared to the behaviour of a friction force acting on a static point mass / block: if a force $F_{ext}$ is applied to a static block, static friction is equal in magnitude and opposite to $F_{ext}$ until $F_{ext} = mg\mu_s\cos\theta$, at which point the block starts to move and the friction becomes kinetic. For a ball rolling down an incline without slipping, friction is clearly not equal to and opposite to the applied force $mg\sin\theta$, but smaller by a factor of $1 + \frac{1}{\beta}$.
Coming back to the ball on the incline, most derivations use the relation $F_f \le mg\mu_s \cos\theta$, which together with $F_f = \left(1 +\frac{1}{\beta}\right)^{-1}mg\sin\theta$ yields $\mu_s \ge \left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right)^{-1}\tan\theta$.
Naively, I would expect all 3 of the following basic laws of frictions to work:
- Static friction is equal to and opposite in magnitude to the applied force ($F_f = mg\sin\theta$) as long as...
- $mg\sin\theta \le F_{f, max}$ (friction is static until applied force exceeds the maximum possible value of static friction)
- $F_f \le F_{f, max} = mg\mu_s\cos\theta$ (maximum magnitude of static friction)
However, the usual solution assumes that only the law 3. holds in this case, and 1. and 2. do not: (1) doesn't hold as $F_f = \left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right)^{-1}mg\sin\theta < mg\sin\theta$. (2) does not necessarily hold as if $mg\sin\theta \le mg\mu_s\cos\theta$, then $\mu_s \ge \tan\theta$, without the factor of $1 + \frac{1}{\beta}$.
How to reconcile the fact that 1. and 2. do not hold while 3. does hold with the standard situation of a point mass, in which case all relations 1., 2., and 3. hold?
I realize this is most likely to the differences between handling rotational vs. translational motion, but I would prefer as rigorous / mathematical answer as possible.
This question is not a duplicate of similar questions (e.g., Acceleration of a ball rolling down incline without slipping), as they do not discuss the apparent contradiction with the situation of a block on an inclined plane.